Right, but he was minimizing the changes and arguing that those who lived during the 60s and 70s didn't think the changes were "that bad". That's revisionist history. Anyone who had an 8th grade understanding of the Faith knew that the new mass was more than just "different". It was a revolutionary and shocking thing. Those that quieted their consciences by claiming blind obedience knew that the changes were wrong.
Right, but even if they were wrong, the question still remains of in what way they're wrong. ie. do you consider them no longer Catholic, or merely in error and endangering their faith. That seems to be what the OP is about, you seem to be saying the former and Matthew seems to be saying the latter.
The false idea that a person who stops going to church or switches to protestantism is to be "accepted as they are" because "who are (their family members) to judge". How many families today accept the errors of other family members by their silence or do so for human respect?
For my own part, I am a new convert (as I've mentioned.) If I have kids some day and one them went Protestant, I would certainly make clear to them that I disapprove, that I seriously fear for their soul, and I would inform them that I intend to pray for their conversion. So I definitely wouldn't just "accept it." Would you go further than that, or is that about the same as you would do? Would you refuse to have anything to do with them?
The same heretical mindset is promoted by V2 that any sincere person can be saved in any religion.Of course he didn't reject it. But his understanding of BOD was not 100% orthodox, so his understanding of "no salvation" was faulty. (By the way, this is why BOD was promoted to begin with by the Modernists in the 30s - to water down the "no salvation" doctrine, so they could usher in V2's new ecclesiology, to pave the way for their hoped-for, freemasonic 'one world religion'). The problem with BOD is that saints do mention it, but the Church has never defined it. So having a faulty BOD belief is not the same as having a faulty faith due to the indult (in case that's where you were going with this). Every V2 error has been soundly, clearly and absolutely rejected by a dogmatic statement in the past. Not so with BOD - there's much misunderstanding and gray area.
To be honest, I'm not going much of anywhere in particular. As I've mentioned, I'm a new convert, and I'm mostly here to learn. I might state tentative opinions in the pursuit/interest of that end, but I'm not trying to prove myself right, or anyone else wrong, on this forum. My goal here is primarily to ask questions, listen, and learn.
1: The reason I asked about Lefebvre is because he clearly saw the notion of "Outside the Church there is no salvation" as compatible with the notion that someone could visibly belong to a false religion and still be "inside the Church" somehow. Your position seems to be that Lefebvre was wrong to say this, but that his erroneously saying so does not constitute either a denial of the dogma or sufficient to make him a heretic. Given that that's the case, I'm not seeing why you wouldn't give the same charitable assessment to those in the indult who believe basically the same thing. To be clear, I'm not saying there isn't a good reason, I'm just saying I don't understand what that reason would be.
2: Does even Vatican II say a sincere person can be saved in any religion? I remember hearing Bishop Barron's whole interview with Shapiro when he said Vatican II says an atheist of good will can be saved according to Lumen Gentium. And my initial reaction was "I have concerns about Lumen Gentium, but I don't think it says that." And then I looked Lumen Gentium up, and sure enough, it doesn't say that. I don't think *even* Vatican II says that someone can be saved without having any supernatural faith at all, furthermore, while Vatican II certainly leaves itself open to the interpretation that someone can in fact be saved while professing a false religion, I don't see how its impossible to read Lumen Gentium as compatible with the notion that if someone with no fault of their own followed the natural law, etc. that God would instead send an angel to such a person rather than leaving them ignorant. Am I wrong about this? And if so, why? (To be clear, I'm not meaning this to be an apology for LG, as it seems to me that the wording was deliberately left very open ended, and that's concerning to me.)