Hi Nishant,
Thank you for responding to me yet again.
Just to stick to the crux of the matter, which you are very good at doing I want to ask or re-ask the following questions, the first of which you may have already answered but I would like to see your response nonetheless.
1. Do you agree that Divine Law, which states that a public heretic cannot legitimately hold ecclesiastical office, is more certain than the supposed teaching at an interregnum can last longer than a certain unspecified amount of time. (The question is almost rhetorical and I hope we can agree on the answer). And if we can agree on the answer the idea of there being a certain limit on an interregnum becomes mute. For if it is certain that a public heretic cannot be Pope then it is certain that an interregnum can last as long as public heretics claim the office.
2. Where those who thought certain valid popes were invalid Popes because of a supposed public heresy they would not retract wrong, because it is incorrect to believe a public heretic cannot hold office, or were they wrong because it was concluded that the claimants were not public heretics, at least after amending their position when the error was brought to their attention? If it is not wrong to believe that public heretics cannot hold office then your point about people being wrong in the past as to whether one was a Pope or not is mute, because the current and past claimants are undeniably public heretics and undeniably have "bound" on the Church what valid Popes cannot bind.
3. My question on whether valid traditional Bishops, regardless of the type of jurisdiction they hold, being both apostolic and visible, as they are successors of the Apostles, has not be answered. If they are truly successors of the Apostles then the type of jurisdiction they have does not enter into the equation. Are you saying they are not valid successors of the Apostles if they only have supplied jurisdiction?
4. I asked if all bishops must be consecrated by the will of a reigning Pontiff or not is of intrinsic necessity or just a good discipline under normal times.
5. I believe before Vatican 2 bishops have been consecrated without a valid Pope approving it, due to persecutions, a long interregnum, lack of communication, and during the GWS when no one was sure who the Pope was or even if we had one. So am I correct to state that the idea that Pope must approve a consecration in order for it to be apostolic is not always the case, not a case of intrinsic necessity?
6. The above simplified means that during normal times it is indeed proper for a Pope to approve the consecrations and to do consecrations against his expressed will would be wrong, but when there is no Pope how can we expect one who does not exist to approve it?
7. Is the Church forced to sit on her hands and not consecrate anyone and supply the ordinary means of sanctifying grace when there is no Pope? Is it de fide that no Bishop is apostolic or visible, and does not have ordinary jurisdiction during these extraordinary times? Would Fenton, Pius V, X or XII insist on that during these times, if they themselves were alive but not Pope?
Are you entirely sure that our traditional bishops are not apostolic by the direct will of Christ Himself and have their authority from Him during these extraordinary times? It would seem a bit of a stretch to insist on the contrary.
I do not understand why the traditional bishops are not what make the Church apostolic and visible.
And, given the circuмstances, I am not sure how we can infallibly insist that they do not have ordinary jurisdiction (not over certain territories, but over their flocks).
And even if they do not have ordinary jurisdiction, how can we say the Church does not continue her Apostolicity in them? Why must we, instead, insist that the heretics legitimately hold office or old non-heretical bishops that no one knows about are the visible and apostolic Church?