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Author Topic: What is the Church's View/Interpretation of Matthew 5:31-32?  (Read 2294 times)

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Offline Judith 15 Ten

Re: What is the Church's View/Interpretation of Matthew 5:31-32?
« Reply #5 on: February 20, 2019, 01:51:27 AM »
True divorce is only effected when at least one of the persons marries during the state of mortal sin, thus, invalidating the Sacrament, such as being intoxicated while getting married; or at least one of the persons was under duress to get married (marrying against their will); or when at least one of the persons, objectively, didn't have the cognitive faculty to get married. The latter is extremely rare like the first two examples, but today's Newchurch basically uses that latter scenario as an excuse for many "divorces" and, thus, hands out "divorces" like candy.

Also, if one of the persons premeditatively marries the other for the purpose of stealing that person's assets, wealth & equity in the wake of a (premeditated) civil divorce, there was no true intent be united with that other person, thus, the Sacrament was invalid.
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