1. Is there such a thing as invincible ignorance? Scripture says "no", that Christ enlightens every man:
That was the true light, which enlighteneth every man that cometh into this world. (John 1:9)
You think John 1:9 suggests that every single human being actually knows or is able to know about Christ and the Trinity? How exactly do you reconcile that with sheer reason? (BTW, I do not believe this verse says this.
2. Christ said infallibly in Scripture to His Apostles that those who would "believe and be baptized" would be saved. That those who would be born again of "water and the Holy Ghost" would attain everlasting life. Those who did not, would be condemned. How then can there be an "unknown" way to be united to the Church/God? Can Christ lie to us? Can Christ contradict Himself?
I believe you are referencing Mark 16:15-16
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15 And he said to them: Go ye into the whole world, and preach the gospel to every creature.16 He that believeth and is baptized, shall be saved: but he that believeth not shall be condemned.//
Well one, the text does say whoever believes and is baptized is saved, but it doesn't *necessarily* say that everyone who isn't baptized, will be damned. Two, the text has in view those creatures to whom the gospel was indeed preached. It seems, at the least, that *this* text does not address the fate of those who simply have not heard the gospel. Three, it doesn't specify exactly what level of precision of "belief" Jesus is talking about. Certainly to obstinately deny even one dogma leads to certain damnation, but also obviously knowledge of every dogma isn't necessary. So what's the bare minimum threshold to count as "belief" in this passage? The passage doesn't say.
3. Can one make a perfect contrition for Original Sin?
I suppose you couldn't repent of existing, but you could presumably have perfect contrition for any mortal sins you have, as well as the desire of baptism.
If so, why is baptism necessary?
Because that's the way God set it up. By analogy, a cancer patient *could* be healed directly by God, if God wanted to do that, but ordinarily medicines are used. And God set up water baptism as the normative means to save souls from original sin and past mortal sins. To spurn that just because God *could* do something else in an extraordinary case of inability is presumption, and is a good way to make sure you end up damned.
If not, then how can an ignorant person have Original Sin forgiven outside of baptism?
You might argue that its only explicit, but baptism of desire *itself* is explicitly taught by the Council of Trent. I'm aware of the ways people try to get around this, but they don't make sense.
4. How can a person ignorant of Original Sin (which is ONLY taught in the Catholic Faith)
This isn't true. While some hipsterdox (term for basically online Eastern Orthodox who exaggerate their differences with Rome) deny "original sin" a whole lot of Eastern Orthodox seem to agree with us on the substance of it. Most Protestants, if anything, *exaggerate* original sin, in the sense that they start acting like we have personal culpability for eating the fruit in the garden imputed to us (which is the other side of their false imputation coin but I digress.)
ask God to forgive Him of it? Contrition for sins involves all those sins which the person committed, yet Original Sin was not committed by any of us, but is passed down to us, therefore this would not be covered by a perfect act of contrition, right?
Yeah that seems reasonable.
5. How many non-catholic religions who still practice baptism teach that salvation comes from accepting Christ, not by being baptized? 99.9%. How many think that baptism is just a SIGN that you have accepted Christ and not important to the same extent? 99.9%.
Does that invalidate the sacrament?
How many teach that contrition for sins is even necessary for salvation, at the time of death, being that Christ forgave them all their sins when they accepted Him? 0.002%. How many protestants, then, would even say an act of contrition in danger of death? 0.002%.
1: Even if you're right about the frequency being that rare, I don't really care, because my argument was never for a certain frequency, just for the theoretical possibility. I actually conceded ,earlier in the thread, that it is *possible* that this *never* happens.
All that said I'm not completely convinced its that rare. Mostly because a soul could have genuine repentance and sorrow for their sins, motivated by the love of God, even if they don't technically know what an "act of contrition" is. The fact that they are repentant of their sins because they love the Lord would seem to be sufficient in that case. And honestly, if they're really doing it motivated by *the love of God* the fact that they *don't* think its "necessary for salvation" would presumably not stop them anyway. Presumably, if they were at the point where they wouldn't repent except because they feared their damnation, that would be more likely imperfect contrition and thus not effecacious without the help of a priest, right?
I will say, maybe I was unusual, but the Protestantism I grew up with definitely taught regular repentance over sins. Oh, yes, they had these silly categories like "If you don't regularly repent of your sin that just shows you were never really saved anyway" and also not really recognizing the inconsistency of needing to be forgiven, present tense, with their notion of imputation. But again, I digress.
6. How many pagans, atheists and other crazy religions (Joos included) teach their adherents to say an act of contrition regularly or in danger of death? I've never heard of it.
Again, this argument is not over the fact that its likely. I'm not arguing that this happens often. That's not what we're arguing about.
Furthermore, I would say that I don't see how an atheist can be saved because they deny even what natural law tells all human beings about the existence of God (see Romans 1) so I do NOT think its possible for an atheist to be saved, and I do NOT agree with many of the current clerics on this point.
If one believes that a non-catholic can be saved outside of the Church, that is heresy.
Agreed.
If one believes that a non-catholic can be inside the Church, without being a member, that is heresy.
Honestly, *this* is the only proposition that matters. This is what I'm disputing. Can you prove me wrong?
(You could argue perhaps that the "non-Catholic" is mislabeled in that case, but even if so, you said its heresy to say that a "non-visible member" could be inside the Church. I don't see that... anywhere.)
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