Makes sense.
What did Thomas Aquinas say about this exactly? I realize he wasn't infallible, but if I understand correctly, he taught Baptism of Desire, and it would seem his views should be respected by Catholics even if/though they aren't infallible.
Secondly, the
sacrament of Baptism may be wanting to anyone in reality but not in desire: for instance, when a man wishes to be
baptized, but by some ill-chance he is forestalled by death before receiving
Baptism. And such a man can obtain
salvation without being actually
baptized, on account of his desire for
Baptism, which desire is the outcome of "
faith that worketh by
charity," whereby
God, Whose power is not tied to visible
sacraments, sanctifies
man inwardly. Hence
Ambrose says of Valentinian, who died while yet a
catechumen: "I lost him whom I was to regenerate: but he did not lose the
grace he
prayed for."
No
man obtains
eternal life unless he be free from all guilt and debt of punishment. Now this plenary
absolution is given when a man receives
Baptism, or suffers
martyrdom: for which reason is it stated that
martyrdom "contains all the sacramental
virtue of
Baptism," i.e. as to the full deliverance from guilt and punishment. Suppose, therefore, a
catechumen to have the desire for
Baptism (else he could not be said to die in his
good works, which cannot be without "
faith that worketh by
charity"), such a one, were he to die, would not forthwith come to
eternal life, but would suffer punishment for his past
sins, "but he himself shall be saved, yet so as by fire" as is stated
1 Corinthians 3:15.
The
sacrament of Baptism is said to be
necessary for
salvation in so far as
man cannot be saved without, at least,
Baptism of desire; "which, with
God, counts for the
deed" (Augustine, Enarr. in Ps. 57).
Sorry for the fomatting. I just copied and pasted.