Stubborn,
You state:
Folks always have to make this leap *on their own* in order to reward salvation to the unbaptized because there is absolutely no definitive Church teaching to support this conclusion.
Now I am not discussing what you suppose “folks” do: I am discussing the teaching of the Catechism (ie: The Roman Catechism first published in 1566). So let us try and stick to the point.
There’s no such thing as a “leap” in a syllogism.
If a syllogism is in correct form and its two premises are true, then its conclusion is true.
As to correct form, I believe that this is sufficiently evident, but if you disagree please point out where the form falls short.
As to the major premise, I have already shown that, in regard to the catechumen who is impeded from receiving baptism, the Catechism says,: “
baptismi suscipiendi propositum atque consilium, et male actae vitae poenitentia satis futura sit ad gratiam et iustitiam” (=the intention as well as the resolution of receiving baptism, and repentance for a life badly spent, would be sufficient for the grace and the righteousness).
As to the minor premise, you have already admitted “that grace and righteousness are not only sufficient, they are necessary for salvation”.
The conclusion is unavoidable, but you won't admit it.
So your statement above looks like an attempt to redefine the conclusion in order to prove that it is false.
If you think that the conclusion is equivalent to “folks rewarding salvation to the unbaptized”, then that is your assertion, but it isn’t mine.
To repeat. You state:
...there is absolutely no definitive Church teaching to support this conclusion.
Assuming that this statement should be read as an assertion on your part (rather than on the part of “folks”), I would point out that the Church’s teaching on ‘Baptism of Blood’ and ‘Baptism of Desire’ can be traced back over many centuries, and that (so far as I am aware) no general council of the Church has issued a canon condemning it.
The only condemnation of it, that I know of, comes from the likes of Peter Dimond and his ilk. Are we supposed to accept them as the new Magisterium?
Next, assuming that you use the expression “definitive Church teaching” to meant an act of the
Extraordinary Magisterium, I would point out that not everything that is contained in the Catechism is covered by an act of the Extraordinary Magisterium. Does this mean that everything contained in the Catechism which is not covered by an act of the Extraordinary Magisterium is erroneous? Not at all. Or that we are free to reject it? Not at all.
The teaching of the Catechism on faith and morals is covered by the
Ordinary Magisterium and it is backed up by the authority of the Roman Pontiff. We owe to the Ordinary Magisterium a religious submission of intellect and will. Therefore, I argue that whoever presumes to dismiss any part of that teaching, not only acts rashly, but sets himself up in the pretence of having an authority superior to that of the Roman Pontiff.
Furthermore, the teaching of the Catechism accords with the teaching of Saint Thomas Aquinas where (as I have shown in translation) it says:
...the sacrament of Baptism may be wanting to anyone in reality but not in desire: for instance, when a man wishes to be baptized, but by some ill-chance he is forestalled by death before receiving Baptism. And such a man can obtain salvation without being actually baptized, on account of his desire for Baptism, which desire is the outcome of “faith that worketh by charity,” whereby God, Whose power is not tied to visible sacraments, sanctifies man inwardly.
So he who presumes to dispute the teaching of the Catechism, also contends against Saint Thomas. What temerity!