But this particular line of Trent admits of two meanings. It's ambiguous, in and of itself. If someone says this teaches BOD, they're putting an interpretation on the text. Likewise, if someone claims this sentence excludes BOD, they're putting an interpretation on the text. You saying the "two variables" must be connected is an effect of such an imposition. You're requiring that any "analogy" have a form in which both of the "two variables" are required. You reject the "driving or walking" analogy because it doesn't fit what you appear to want this sentence to say. And yes, of course "driving or walking" do not relate to each other in precisely and exactly the same way that "laver or desire" relate to each other, but that wasn't the point of the analogy. (There's a saying that analogies limp except on the point of the comparison.)
So, OK, we could look at analogies that compare grammatically to
"Justification cannot be had without the laver or the desire".
Note that the subject is justification - a grace, not a sacrament, and not sacramental character.
What we would have is a sentence like
"The graces of a sacrament cannot be had without the sacrament or the desire"
and this sentence would supposedly mean that both the sacrament and the desire are required.
Penance: Can there be no forgiveness without the sacrament of penance in re? No perfect contrition?
.
Confirmation: Do the gifts of the holy ghost not exist in the soul without the sacrament of confirmation?
.
Communion: Are the fruits of communion possible through "spiritual communion" at least in some limited way?
.
Marriage: Since the couple are the ministers, one could view a desire for the sacrament, with appropriate external conditions, as the sacrament itself. So the sacrament and the desire are arguably the same.
.
Last rites: not sure but should be similar to penance.
.
Holy orders. Obviously, desire does not confer the character or the power to offer mass, but I don't see why other graces could not flow based on a "desire" without reception of the sacrament.
.
Your interpretation for baptism wouldn't fit any other sacrament. I can see potential reasons baptism could be entirely different, but it still means analogies with other sacraments do not appear to support your view.
Yes, but this discussion is about baptism. If both the sacrament in re, AND the votum, are required for justification, then something should be said about infant baptisms. Do infants express a desire for the sacrament?
And if you say the votum can be in the sponsors, does that mean a third party impacts validity?
SOME graces of SOME of the Sacraments can be received before the reception of the Sacrament
in re. But the question here is whether all the graces necessary for salvation (vs. justification) can be received
in voto. So, for instance, even if justification can be arrived at with just the
votum, does that state of justification suffice for salvation? I concur with Father Feeney that it does not.
I'm on the fence about pre-Baptismal justification. I'm inclined to believe that it can happen in some cases, but that the Sacramental character of Baptism is required for the beatific vision. I take Father Feeney's position just a step further and contend that if someone, hypothetically only since I believe with St. Augustine that this can't happen in actual fact, WOULD die in a state of justification without the Sacramental character, he would enter into a state similar to the Limbo of the Fathers. [Father Feeney answered "I don't know" to that question.]
This renders the interpretation of the Trent passage moot. I still do hold, however, that Trent is saying that the
votum is ALSO required, not that it suffices, for justification. This interpretation is backed up by that passage from the Catechism of Trent cited above by Stubborn. I'll have to find the Latin to see if the term
votum appears there (or some verbal form of it). If that exists there, then an "either ... or ..." reading of the passage doesn't work, because you'd be contradicting the Catechism in asserting that the laver can justify without the
votum. There's a Canon in Trent that says the same thing, that the Sacrament cannot justify without the (will and intention) to receive it.
I think we all, including Xavier, should agree that "desire" is a horrible translation that has done no service to the debate. Even Catholic Encyclopedia rejects it as entirely inadequate.
votum is a VOW, and is linguistically related to the word "will", so it means more along the lines of will and intention, but it's even more concrete, like a wedding vow, where there's a huge difference between desiring to get married and making the vow. So it's a "firm resolution" at the very least. That kind of reading would preclude it being applicable to some Great Thumb worshipper in the jungle who's never even heard of Baptism. Which is, IMO, PRECISELY why they watered this down with the "desire" translation.
This phrase "Baptism of Desire" needs to be completely stricken from our vocabulary, replaced with something more along the lines of "intention" or "resolution". Of course the term "Baptism of" is also problematic, since these folks do not actually receive "Baptism" (of which there is only one, with the term "Three Baptisms" being an "offensive to pious ears" expression directly contradicting the Creed.