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Author Topic: ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation  (Read 48356 times)

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Offline trad123

  • Supporter
ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation
« Reply #385 on: January 23, 2011, 07:21:56 PM »
Quote from: Stubborn
CANON IV.-If any one saith, that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary unto salvation................let him be anathema.

If they were not baptized with water, then our answer must be: We do not know.


How about we quote the entire canon:

Quote
CANON IV.-If any one saith, that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary unto salvation, but superfluous; and that, without them, or without the desire thereof, men obtain of God, through faith alone, the grace of justification;-though all (the sacraments) are not indeed necessary for every individual; let him be anathema.


Why didn't you include that? The sacraments are necessary in actuality or desire.

For reference:

http://www.sspx.org/miscellaneous/three_errors_of_feeneyites.htm

Quote
When the Council of Trent is read carefully, we see that the Council teaches that:

    ...it is necessary to believe that the justified have everything necessary for them to be regarded as having completely satisfied the divine law for this life by their works, at least those which they have performed in God. And they may be regarded as having likewise truly merited the eternal life they will certainly attain in due time (if they but die in the state of grace) (see Apoc. 14:13; 606, can. 32), because Christ our Savior says: "He who drinks of the water that I will give him shall never thirst, but it will become in him a fountain of water, springing up into life everlasting" (see Jn. 4:13 ff.)8 [Session VI, Chap. 16; Dz 809].

In other words, salvation, which is at the end of the Christian life on earth, only requires perseverance in the state of grace received at justification, which is at the beginning of the Christian life on earth. Baptism is the sacrament of justification, the sacrament of the beginning of the Christian life. If one has received sanctifying grace, which is the reality of the sacrament —res sacramenti —of baptism, he only needs to persevere in that grace to be saved. Perseverance in grace requires obedience to the Commandments of God, including the commandment to receive the sacrament of baptism. Thus there remains for him the obligation to receive baptism of water. But, this is no longer absolutely necessary (by necessity of means), since he has already received by grace the ultimate fruit of that means. It still remains necessary in virtue of our Lord’s precept to be baptized by water. When and if circuмstances independent of our will prevent us from fulfilling such a precept, the principle taught by St. Cyprian, St. Ambrose, St. Augustine, and others is to be applied: "God takes the will as the fact." 9 This means that God accepts the intention to receive the sacrament of baptism as equivalent to the actual reception of the sacrament.


This coincides with what I've already said:

http://www.cathinfo.com/catholic.php?a=topic&t=13647&min=375#p4

Offline trad123

  • Supporter
ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation
« Reply #386 on: January 23, 2011, 07:52:20 PM »
Quote from: Stubborn
I gotta say, this format is tough to do these long posts.......they need to switch the giant emoticon space with this puny text box - imo.

Quote from: trad123
Quote from: Stubborn
Denzinger is fallible. It is a very good source for dogma etc, however, one needs look no further than the defined dogma, which is in perfect harmony with spoken tradition and Scripture.


I posted it so citations could be viewed.

Quote from: Stubborn
I mean, water is water - Trent defined that water is necessary for baptism. The --"or" means both conditions apply. It does not mean that we can choose one or the other.


Not a single theologian has taken the "or" in that decree to mean "and".

I've never read in any theology manual that it's one or the other in the sense that you're reading it. That one could have the laver, but not the desire. Free-will is necessary, that's a given.


EXAMPLE: “You cannot confect the sacraments without the proper form, matter, or intention.” Use the word “or” in context with the dogma, including John 3:5 or it does not make an ounce of sense.

John 3:5 does not give and option does it?
As much as I wish it did for BODers sake, it does not say "Unless a man is born again of water or desire does it? No, certainly not - hope we agree on that.


Note what I said:

Quote
Not a single theologian has taken the "or" in that decree to mean "and".


Find me a single theologian that does the opposite.


Offline Stubborn

  • Supporter
ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation
« Reply #387 on: January 24, 2011, 01:27:38 AM »
Quote from: trad123
Quote from: Stubborn
CANON IV.-If any one saith, that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary unto salvation................let him be anathema.

If they were not baptized with water, then our answer must be: We do not know.


How about we quote the entire canon:

Quote
CANON IV.-If any one saith, that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary unto salvation, but superfluous; and that, without them, or without the desire thereof, men obtain of God, through faith alone, the grace of justification;-though all (the sacraments) are not indeed necessary for every individual; let him be anathema.


Why didn't you include that? The sacraments are necessary in actuality or desire.

For reference:

http://www.sspx.org/miscellaneous/three_errors_of_feeneyites.htm

Quote
When the Council of Trent is read carefully, we see that the Council teaches that:

    ...it is necessary to believe that the justified have everything necessary for them to be regarded as having completely satisfied the divine law for this life by their works, at least those which they have performed in God. And they may be regarded as having likewise truly merited the eternal life they will certainly attain in due time (if they but die in the state of grace) (see Apoc. 14:13; 606, can. 32), because Christ our Savior says: "He who drinks of the water that I will give him shall never thirst, but it will become in him a fountain of water, springing up into life everlasting" (see Jn. 4:13 ff.)8 [Session VI, Chap. 16; Dz 809].

In other words, salvation, which is at the end of the Christian life on earth, only requires perseverance in the state of grace received at justification, which is at the beginning of the Christian life on earth. Baptism is the sacrament of justification, the sacrament of the beginning of the Christian life. If one has received sanctifying grace, which is the reality of the sacrament —res sacramenti —of baptism, he only needs to persevere in that grace to be saved. Perseverance in grace requires obedience to the Commandments of God, including the commandment to receive the sacrament of baptism. Thus there remains for him the obligation to receive baptism of water. But, this is no longer absolutely necessary (by necessity of means), since he has already received by grace the ultimate fruit of that means. It still remains necessary in virtue of our Lord’s precept to be baptized by water. When and if circuмstances independent of our will prevent us from fulfilling such a precept, the principle taught by St. Cyprian, St. Ambrose, St. Augustine, and others is to be applied: "God takes the will as the fact." 9 This means that God accepts the intention to receive the sacrament of baptism as equivalent to the actual reception of the sacrament.


This coincides with what I've already said:

http://www.cathinfo.com/catholic.php?a=topic&t=13647&min=375#p4


For whatever reason, my formatting is not working properly with this post.

As for your above quote that says "9 This means that God accepts the intention to receive the sacrament of baptism as equivalent to the actual reception of the sacrament" and tells us that St. Cyprian, St. Ambrose, St. Augustine, and others teach it, that is not true.

St. Augustine, in his book Retractationes (Retractions) said:

Nor let us wonder that we cannot trace His unsearchable ways. For, to say nothing of innumerable other things which are given by the Lord God to some men, and to others are not given, since with Him is no respect of persons; such things as are not conferred on the merits of will, as bodily swiftness, strength, good health, and beauty of body, marvellous intellects and mental natures capable of many arts, or such as fall to man's lot from without, such as are wealth, nobility, honours, and other things of this kind, which it is in the power of God alone that a man should have; not to dwell even on the baptism of infants (which none of those objectors can say does not pertain, as might be said of those other matters, to the kingdom of God), why it is given to this infant and not given to that, since both of them are equally in God's power, and without that sacrament none can enter into the kingdom of God—to be silent, then, on these matters, or to leave them on one side, let men consider those very special cases of which we are treating. For we are discoursing of such as have not perseverance in goodness, but die in the decline of their good will from good to evil.



As for your first point about why I did not post the entire canon - it was because I was trying to get you to focus on what it says - not what you want it to say.

I will make another try at it.............

Trent does not allow for Baptism of Desire, here is the entire canon, broke down to clarify for you: CANON IV. If any one saith, that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary unto salvation, but superfluous;

In Canon IV, Trent declares baptism (the sacrament) necessary for salvation. Right?...............

The same Canon goes on to say: and that, without them, or without the desire thereof, men obtain of God, through faith alone, the grace of justification;-though all (the sacraments) are not ineed necessary for every individual; let him be anathema.

The "desire thereof", in this case, Baptism, affords one the grace of justification, not salvation. Right?

Hence, one cannot deny the above infallible canon declaring baptism with water is necessary for salvation. No Baptism with water, no salvation - right?

Same as one cannot deny that a firm resolve to actually get baptized with water (which I equate to a perfect act of contrition) will put a soul in the state of justification, not salvation - right?

Offline Stubborn

  • Supporter
ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation
« Reply #388 on: January 24, 2011, 01:43:38 AM »
Quote from: trad123
Quote from: Stubborn
I gotta say, this format is tough to do these long posts.......they need to switch the giant emoticon space with this puny text box - imo.

Quote from: trad123
Quote from: Stubborn
Denzinger is fallible. It is a very good source for dogma etc, however, one needs look no further than the defined dogma, which is in perfect harmony with spoken tradition and Scripture.


I posted it so citations could be viewed.

Quote from: Stubborn
I mean, water is water - Trent defined that water is necessary for baptism. The --"or" means both conditions apply. It does not mean that we can choose one or the other.


Not a single theologian has taken the "or" in that decree to mean "and".

I've never read in any theology manual that it's one or the other in the sense that you're reading it. That one could have the laver, but not the desire. Free-will is necessary, that's a given.


EXAMPLE: “You cannot confect the sacraments without the proper form, matter, or intention.” Use the word “or” in context with the dogma, including John 3:5 or it does not make an ounce of sense.

John 3:5 does not give and option does it?
As much as I wish it did for BODers sake, it does not say "Unless a man is born again of water or desire does it? No, certainly not - hope we agree on that.


Note what I said:

Quote
Not a single theologian has taken the "or" in that decree to mean "and".


Find me a single theologian that does the opposite.


I guess that I do not understand why do you need a theologian to tell you what you are reading.

Does it make even a shred of sense to say what you think it says in light of: .....as it is written; unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God.

It would make sense if  "as it is written" was: unless a man be born again of water or the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God.

IMO, people who believe in BOD cannot agree on what it is that they believe in and even just wth BOD even is, hence, they do not have a clue exactly what the H they are even defending.

Here is a question for you - or any BODer -  If Trent did not infallibly teach the absolute necessity of water baptism for sanctification, what did they infallibly teach?    


Offline trad123

  • Supporter
ordinary vs extraordinary means of salvation
« Reply #389 on: January 24, 2011, 08:54:11 AM »
Quote from: Stubborn
St. Augustine, in his book Retractationes (Retractions) said:

Nor let us wonder that we cannot trace His unsearchable ways. For, to say nothing of innumerable other things which are given by the Lord God to some men, and to others are not given, since with Him is no respect of persons; such things as are not conferred on the merits of will, as bodily swiftness, strength, good health, and beauty of body, marvellous intellects and mental natures capable of many arts, or such as fall to man's lot from without, such as are wealth, nobility, honours, and other things of this kind, which it is in the power of God alone that a man should have; not to dwell even on the baptism of infants (which none of those objectors can say does not pertain, as might be said of those other matters, to the kingdom of God), why it is given to this infant and not given to that, since both of them are equally in God's power, and without that sacrament none can enter into the kingdom of God—to be silent, then, on these matters, or to leave them on one side, let men consider those very special cases of which we are treating. For we are discoursing of such as have not perseverance in goodness, but die in the decline of their good will from good to evil.


What are you doing? Not even reading the passage, just copying from the Dimond brothers?

Read the part before you bolded:

Quote
not to dwell even on the baptism of infants (which none of those objectors can say does not pertain, as might be said of those other matters, to the kingdom of God), why it is given to this infant and not given to that, since both of them are equally in God's power, and without that sacrament none can enter into the kingdom of God


He's speaking of infants.