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Author Topic: John 3:5  (Read 34277 times)

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Online Pax Vobis

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #265 on: August 11, 2017, 08:04:55 AM »
Again, back to the original purpose of this thread:  "Jesus answered: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

The above quote is from Christ Himself, translated into Latin by St Jerome, further translated into English by church-approved authorities and it is written in plain english.  With child-like simplicity, we are to read this literally, with no commentary, or explanation or interpretation required because the Church has said this is how this passage is to be understood.  The Church has told us there is no symbolic meaning of the above verse.  If one were to ask a 6 year old what this verse means, he would be able to understand it immediately, because the truth is simple.  The answer is that Christ is saying that the sacrament of baptism (i.e. WATER baptism) is absolutely necessary for salvation.  There are no qualifiers, no exceptions, no options. 

This is Church teaching.  This agrees with the other infallible, council definitions.  This MUST be believed.  All other Doctors, Saints, and theologians who contradict the above, also contradict the councils of Florence and Trent, and are WRONG.  If there is conflict between a fallible source (theologians, saints, etc) and an infallible source (i.e. Scripture, Dogmatic council statements) the infallible source WINS because nothing is allowed to contradict a solemn teaching of the Faith.

Online Pax Vobis

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #266 on: August 11, 2017, 08:06:31 AM »
Quote
The infallible council taught BOD.
Trent taught justification. 


Re: John 3:5
« Reply #267 on: August 11, 2017, 08:17:25 AM »
Again, back to the original purpose of this thread:  "Jesus answered: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

The above quote is from Christ Himself, translated into Latin by St Jerome, further translated into English by church-approved authorities and it is written in plain english.  With child-like simplicity, we are to read this literally, with no commentary, or explanation or interpretation required because the Church has said this is how this passage is to be understood.  The Church has told us there is no symbolic meaning of the above verse.  If one were to ask a 6 year old what this verse means, he would be able to understand it immediately, because the truth is simple.  The answer is that Christ is saying that the sacrament of baptism (i.e. WATER baptism) is absolutely necessary for salvation.  There are no qualifiers, no exceptions, no options.

This is Church teaching.  This agrees with the other infallible, council definitions.  This MUST be believed.  All other Doctors, Saints, and theologians who contradict the above, also contradict the councils of Florence and Trent, and are WRONG.  If there is conflict between a fallible source (theologians, saints, etc) and an infallible source (i.e. Scripture, Dogmatic council statements) the infallible source WINS because nothing is allowed to contradict a solemn teaching of the Faith.
The Fathers, Saints, Doctors and Popes who teach BOD do not contradict that verse.  It is absurdity on stilts to even remotely suggest Aquinas misinterpreted that verse, let alone all the rest.  I do hope you grasp this at some point before your death.  It could make a big difference on how things turn out.  

Re: John 3:5
« Reply #268 on: August 11, 2017, 08:18:07 AM »
Trent taught justification.
By desire when sacramental baptism is impossible.  

Re: John 3:5
« Reply #269 on: August 11, 2017, 08:21:01 AM »
But you do interpret it when you say no one can be within the Church apart from water.  The feeneyite heresy is a perfect example on how all the theologians, Fathers, Saints, Doctors and Popes have to go away in order to preserve the heresy.  I'm not sure how anyone of good will cannot see that.
Conflation of "definition" with "interpretation"
Buddy, you're both modernist and naturalist, the latter because of the dogmatic death spiral your "dogma is interpretive" view would entail. Indefinite definition = not definitive = not dogma.  You'll take this as petty/ad hom but I can only hope,  at best for now, that you've been intellectually maimed by your own malice.