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Author Topic: John 3:5  (Read 36043 times)

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #180 on: August 09, 2017, 11:43:29 AM »
So you present a source that opines in favor of BoD, equate it with "Church teaching," and consider this proof of something other than the fact that this source happens to opine in favor of BoD.

My answer:  I opine against it.  End of thread.
First of all you believe in BOD.  Secondly you consider your opinion above all others in the history of the world as you have repeatedly proved.
Thirdly, Wrong.  I don't belittle the theologians, Fathers, Doctors and Popes as you do but popes and the Council of Trent taught it.  
End of thread.  

Online Ladislaus

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #181 on: August 09, 2017, 11:46:31 AM »
First of all you believe in BOD.

No I don't.  I've said that a Catholic is free to believe in BoD ... provided that he does not also hold various errors and heresies that usually come with BoD in its common understanding.  I personally do not believe in it, but this is just an opinion.


Re: John 3:5
« Reply #182 on: August 09, 2017, 11:48:19 AM »
No I don't.  I've said that a Catholic is free to believe in BoD ... provided that he does not also hold various errors and heresies that usually come with BoD in its common understanding.  I personally do not believe in it, but this is just an opinion.
Thanks for the clarification.  So you believe Trent does not teach one can be justified by the desire for baptism as Feeney did.

Online Ladislaus

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #183 on: August 09, 2017, 12:44:30 PM »
Thanks for the clarification.  So you believe Trent does not teach one can be justified by the desire for baptism as Feeney did.

No, I do not believe that the passage in question teaches justification by BoD.  I do not, however, discount Father Feeney's justification/salvation distinction altogether; it makes sense theologically.


Re: John 3:5
« Reply #184 on: August 09, 2017, 12:49:16 PM »
No, I do not believe that the passage in question teaches justification by BoD.  I do not, however, discount Father Feeney's justification/salvation distinction altogether; it makes sense theologically.
So bear with me a bit, as if you just met me.  We have the classic definition of "membership" since the time of Bellarmine which Pius XII defined in his Mystici Corporis.  You know that definition.  We also have the lose or "imperfect" definition by theologians in order to get non-members of the Church into the Church as "members" who have the possibility of salvation.  Do I have this correct, can you please elaborate or clarify?