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Author Topic: John 3:5  (Read 35987 times)

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Offline Ladislaus

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #205 on: August 10, 2017, 11:52:55 AM »
Okay.  I anticipated you perhaps saying it wasn't "defined".  I believe I have read that in encyclicals when is clarified and put in the Acta it is infallible.  Regardless, I believe that is the standard definition.

I've long disagreed with your view of infallibility.  Clarification + appearance in Acta do not suffice for infallibility.  Notes of infallibility were defined by Vatican I.  Msgr. Fenton has a good paper about the authority of Encyclicals.

There are two uses of the term "define".  "Define" in the sense of a doctrinal definition refers, effectively, to authoritatively putting an end to all discussion.

Re: John 3:5
« Reply #206 on: August 10, 2017, 11:55:12 AM »
Oh, please, give me a break.  You have repeatedly demonstrated that you are incapable of comprehending even the most elementary of distinctions.
This shows how it is impossible to get into a civil conversation on this issue with even the best of the 21st century lay theologians have to offer.  Are you on par with the Dimonds or more knowledgeable then them?  


Offline Ladislaus

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #207 on: August 10, 2017, 11:58:21 AM »
I believe saying non-members who are within the Church by desire and imperfect members are two ways of saying the same thing.  Again Fenton is very clear in saying that one cannot desire what they already have and that members of the Church according to the "strict" or classical definition are already baptized, profess the faith and submit to legitimate authority.  


No, these two positions are completely different.  That's why Msgr. Fenton spilled so much ink contrasting the positions and then siding in favor of the "non-members" can be within the Church position.

Imperfect membership is not the same as membership in voto even.  Former camp believe that one actually obtains membership (partially) and it's by virtue of this partial membership (actually achieved, not merely in desire) that they are within the Church and saved.  I prefer this explanation to the in voto school or the position held by Fenton.

But we needn't argue too much about this ... since this dispute is among those who believe that people can be saved by desiring Baptism.

Problem is that you keep putting this distinction out there as a quasi-proof for Baptism of Desire and Salvation by Desire.  But it's not really proof, since this particular premise is disputed.  You just keep gratuitously saying that non-members can be saved.  I on the other hand simply point out that this is an opinion (disputed by many serious approved theologians) and so it doesn't suffice as probative in your logical framework.

Re: John 3:5
« Reply #208 on: August 10, 2017, 11:58:33 AM »
I've long disagreed with your view of infallibility.  Clarification + appearance in Acta do not suffice for infallibility.  Notes of infallibility were defined by Vatican I.  Msgr. Fenton has a good paper about the authority of Encyclicals.

There are two uses of the term "define".  "Define" in the sense of a doctrinal definition refers, effectively, to authoritatively putting an end to all discussion.
I agree with you here.  At least in regards to what you state above.  

Quote
Denz. 1839 And so We, adhering faithfully to the tradition received from the beginning of the Christian faith, to the glory of God, our Savior, the elevation of the Catholic religion and the salvation of Christian peoples, with the approbation of the sacred Council, teach and explain that the dogma has been divinely revealed: that the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks ex cathedra, that is, when carrying out the duty of the pastor and teacher of all Christians by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority he defines a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the universal Church, through the divine assistance promised him in blessed Peter, operates with that infallibility with which the divine Redeemer wished that His church be instructed in defining doctrine on faith and morals; and so such definitions of the Roman Pontiff from himself, but not from the consensus of the Church, are unalterable.

Quote
Pius IX, “Tuas Libenter”, Denz. 1683: For, even if it were a matter concerning that subjection which is to be manifested by an act of divine faith, nevertheless, it would not have to be limited to those matters which have been defined by express decrees of the ecuмenical Councils, or of the Roman Pontiffs and of this See, but would have to be extended also to those matters which are handed down as divinely revealed by the ordinary teaching power of the whole Church spread throughout the world, and therefore, by universal and common consent are held by Catholic theologians to belong to faith.

Offline Ladislaus

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Re: John 3:5
« Reply #209 on: August 10, 2017, 12:00:16 PM »
This shows how it is impossible to get into a civil conversation on this issue with even the best of the 21st century lay theologians have to offer.  Are you on par with the Dimonds or more knowledgeable then them?  

You started this by taking a condescending view of those who disagree with you, LoT, declaring them incapable of understanding distinctions.  I'm pointing out that you are in no position to look down on others for not being able to understand distinctions.  Our problem is not that we do not understand them; we REJECT some of the distinctions they try to make.