Stubborn,
I've made the argument that the "since the promulgation of the Gospel" means - to distinguish justification under the New Covenant from the Old - that at least an explicit desire for the sacrament of baptism was necessary now, which would differentiate justification under the New Covenant, since the sacrament of baptism wasn't available under the Old.
I know the argument. I was a "Feeneyite" for years.
But, wait.....the catechisms state one can even desire it implicitly. Are we to believe that the OUM teaches explicit desire or at least implicit desire? Which is the true teaching?
Just another ambiguity....