OK, I wasn't aware of the different definitions. I think we are on the same page.
Someone posted here once a passage from a theologian discussing the different notions of "heresy" and "material heresy" and "formal heresy".
Where I have issues, as you know, is with those theologians who attempt to equate "formal" heresy with "bad faith" or "insincerity". That's in line with the subjectivization of truth that has been trending for a few hundred years now.
So, a Catholic who believes a heretical proposition out of ignorance only, as soon as he's shown that the Church teaches the contrary, immediately rejects the opinion, because he accepts the Church's Magisterium as the rule of faith, and therefore has the formal motive of faith even if in material error about WHAT the Church teaches.
Meanwhile, a (former-)Catholic who knows what the Church teaches and rejects it anyway, that person is formally heretical because he's at least implicitly (sometimes explicitly) rejecting the authority of the Church, which is what underlies all dogma. Thus the saying that if you reject one dogma you reject them all. That person could be as "sincere" as anything, and be 1000% convinced that his error is true. But he's a formal heretic anyway, because he rejects the authority behind all dogma and therefore doesn't have the proper formal motive of faith.
Material refers to the WHAT of belief, whereas formal refers to the WHY. It has nothing to do with the subjective disposition of "sincerity". But that's precisely what some modern theologians have morphed it into. This similar to my objection to how "formal" cooperation with evil has been shifted over time.