So, for BoDers, they read the passage, "one cannot be justified without the Sacrament or the will" as meaning "one cannot be justified without the Sacrament or ELSE the will", then you're making Trent teach, "one CAN be justified WITHOUT THE SACRAMENT." So Trent's major emphasis, repeated over and over, that one cannot be justified WITHOUT the Sacrament, now suddenly means that one CAN be justified WITHOUT the Sacrament? That's laughable.
See the language is important. Even in BoD theory, one can never be said to be justified WITHOUT the Sacrament. Even in BoD, the Sacrament must remain the instrumental cause of justification, for justification cannot take place "WITHOUT" the Sacrament. Even in BoD theory, justification does not take place WITHOUT the Sacrament, but there's merely a different mode of receiving it.
So Trent is absolutely in no way, shape, or form in this passage attempting to teach and define BoD. Not to mention that, for allegedly being a dogmatic pronouncement, why is there not actual definition of what the term means? Why are there about a dozen different theories about what BoD is and how it works and what conditions are required? When the Church "defines" something, it clearly and explicitly teaches what exactly must be believed about it. So I am supposed to believe in BoD but I don't really understand WHAT it is that I'm required to believe?