If your syllogism were to be believed, then Trent would have had to teach that this contrition is perfect through charity and reconciles man to God without this sacrament actually being received.
You can be as stubborn about it as you like, but Trent clearly teaches that the sacramental effect of penance can be received in desire.
a contrite and humble heart, but also THE SACRAMENTAL CONFESSION OF THE SAID SINS, AT LEAST IN DESIRE [saltem in voto], and to be made in its season, and sacerdotal absolution and likewise satisfaction by fasts, alms, prayers, and the other pious exercises of a spiritual life; not indeed for the eternal punishment,-which is, together with the guilt, REMITTED, EITHER BY THE SACRAMENT, OR BY THE DESIRE OF THE SACRAMENT,-but for the temporal punishment
Read clearly and it says the sacramental confession can be made at least in desire because the reception of the sacramental effect is possible through perfect contrition.
Because Trent teaches that the necessity of penance is the same as the necessity of baptism, it follows that baptism too is necessary in fact or in desire.
Your quote from Chapter XIV is once again, conveniently taken out of context.
What did you do, a word search for the word "desire" then conclude Trent is teaching about a desire for confession?
CHAPTER XIV.
On the fallen, and their restoration
As regards those who, by sin, have fallen from the received grace of Justification, they may be again justified, when, God exciting them, through the sacrament of Penance they shall have attained to the recovery.....
I fail to see how you can say the above is stating anything other than the obvious - namely, that it is the sacrament of Penance which may restore the Christian (one who is already baptized) to the state of Justification after sinning.
Chapter XIV continues:
....Whence it is to be taught, that the penitence of a Christian, after his fall, is very different from that at (his) baptism:
and that therein [this penitence] are included not only a cessation from sins, and a detestation thereof, or, a contrite and humble heart, but also the sacramental confession of the said sins,-at least in desire, and to be made in its season,-and sacerdotal absolution; [sacerdotal absolution = absolution given to the penitent by a priest]
Here the council is teaching about what
"the penitence of the Christian" consists of, not the Christian, to obtain justification. As you can see, included in this penitence is
"sacramental confession of the said sins,-at least in desire, and to be made in its season,-and sacerdotal absolution".
Trent is teaching that in order to obtain forgiveness, one must go to confession, they must confess for the purpose of being forgiven for their sins, not for any other reason (aka
"at least in desire") AND they must receive absolution. Trent is *not* teaching that
"we at least gotta have a desire to go to confession to obtain forgiveness" as you suggest it does.
In your zeal to reject the necessity of the sacrament, you managed to zoom in to
"at least in desire" and completely ignored not only the subject matter being taught, you also completely ignored the two requirements those words (
"at least in desire") were sandwiched in between.
Once you accomplished all that, you could then proclaim that Trent teaches something it obviously does not teach, namely, that
"the sacramental confession can be made at least in desire because the reception of the sacramental effect is possible through perfect contrition." But after having it clearly explained to you above, if you are honest, you have to admit that the Council taught no such thing as a "confession of desire" and that you completely mutilated what the Council actually did teach in order to justify your belief that salvation is attainable without the sacrament of baptism and certainly without the sacrament of penance.
A sacrament is said to be necessary when an effect proper to that sacrament is a means without which salvation cannot be attained. But this sacramental effect can sometimes be received in desire.
The Church in fact teaches this in Her own canon law. Your absurd pretenses lead you to claim that the Church in Her canon law solemnly contradicted Her own solemn anathematizations in the canons of Trent; this would have earned you an instant excommunication from a Pope like St. Pius X or Benedict XV.
Yes, we all know this is what you and all avid BODers say, but this is not a teaching of the Church - and can only be said to be a teaching of the Church after one adulterates as you have, what the Church actually teaches, as I just demonstrated above.
You are correct when you say that
"Because Trent teaches that the necessity of penance is the same as the necessity of baptism... but you completely blow it when you add
"...it follows that baptism too is necessary in fact or in desire." Pay attention to what Trent teaches regarding Perfect Contrition.........
Hence the- Council of Trent declares: For those who fall into sin after Baptism the Sacrament of Penance is as necessary to salvation as is Baptism for those who have not been already baptised. The saying of St. Jerome that Penance is a second plank, is universally known and highly commended by all subsequent writers on sacred things. As he who suffers shipwreck has no hope of safety, unless, perchance, he seize on some plank from the wreck, so he that suffers the shipwreck of baptismal innocence, unless he cling to the saving plank of Penance, has doubtless lost all hope of salvation.Trent's catechism continues:
The Necessity of the Sacrament of Penance
Returning now to the Sacrament, it is so much the special province of Penance to remit sins that it is impossible to obtain or even to hope for remission of sins by any other means; for it is written: Unless you do penance, you shall all likewise perish. These words were said by our Lord in reference to grievous and mortal sins, although at the same time lighter sins, which are called venial, also require some sort of penance. St. Augustine observes that the kind of penance which is daily performed in the Church for venial sins, would be absolutely useless, if venial sin could be remitted without penance.It goes on:
Necessity Of Confession
Contrition, it is true, blots out sin; but who does not know that to effect this it must be so intense, so ardent, so vehement, as to bear a proportion to the magnitude of the crimes which it effaces? This is a degree of contrition which few reach; and hence, in this way, very few indeed could hope to obtain the pardon of their sins. It, therefore, became necessary that the most merciful Lord should provide by some easier means for the common salvation of men; and this He has done in His admirable wisdom, by giving to His Church the keys of the kingdom of heaven.
According to the doctrine of the Catholic Church, a doctrine firmly to be believed and constantly professed by all, if the sinner have a sincere sorrow for his sins and a firm resolution of avoiding them in future, although he bring not with him that contrition which *may* be sufficient of itself to obtain pardon, all his sins are forgiven and remitted through the power of the keys, when he confesses them properly to the priest. Justly, then, do those most holy men, our Fathers, proclaim that by the keys of the Church the gate of heaven is thrown open, a truth which no one can doubt since the Council of Florence has decreed that the effect of Penance is absolution from sin.Here, read it yourself if you don't believe me:
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/romancat.html