What you are doing is confusing whether someone is bound by obligation to have explicit belief in some mysteries of the faith, and the idea that the explicit belief must inherently be present in the soul upon death regardless of knowledge of that obligation.
Really. So you're now saying that every single person, at least as far as clerics, popes, theologians, saints, has
always believed of
explicit faith as a mere necessity of precept.
If that were the case, as I am often forced to lay out with BODomaniacs, it would make Evangelisation a criminal act, and best strategy for the Salvation of Souls for the Apostles to lock themselves up in some basement immediately after the Resurrection.
Christ's preaching itself was dangerous, and He may very well have avoided it, and kept humanity in the dark.
Yes, you are confusing the two. Even with a baptized baby who doesn't explicitly believe in anything, true faith exists.
Is this true? True Faith exists even without Reason, etiam, in the complete absence of Reason before the Age of Accountability?
Catholic books speak of "passive infallibility" of the Church, and yes, I believe those Catholic books. Every sedevacantist really does.
What does passive infallibility (of the ecclesia discens?) have to do with your notion of "everything tolerated/not expressly condemned by the Church for a [arbitrary] amount of time is therefore orthodox" ?
Also, I do not believe in passive infallibility.