Today (Septuagesima Sunday), the Gospel reading was about the fewness of the saved, and ends, "...but with most of them, He was not well-pleased." But in the sermon, instead of saying that, the priest mentioned 2-3 times, "God was not pleased with all of them." Yes, yes, technically true. But it seemed to me that the priest was implying therefore that God WAS pleased with MOST of them. There is a big difference between the spirit of today's Gospel (and Epistle) on the fewness of the saved, noting how even the great Moses didn't inherit the promised land, and how out of 600,000 Jews who crossed the Red Sea, only 2 (!!) entered the promised land. Therefore, I thought it quite incongruent for the priest to turn the words around to say "God was not pleasaed with all of them." All?? How about almost NONE?! I get irked when softy priests put cushions under sins, and dumb down the Gospel because they think that if we hear something about the fewness of the saved, we will despair or become discouraged. On the contrary, if those words were in the Gospel, and placed there by God, then I think it is a priest's duty to preach in that spirit. Obviously, the Church considered these to be sobering words, but also motivating words ("run the race so as to win."). Is it the biggest thing in the world? No. But if I'm in Tradition, with a traditional priest, I expect him not to water down the Gospel for me.