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Apologies, M. Ladislaus, but the previous post was written by me (I forgot to check the box, and when I tried to do it after the fact, I was not permitted).In any case, if I understand you correctly, you think to evade the Tridentine anathemas by interpreting "receives rightly" as pertaining to the rite of Mass used to confect the sacrament, rather than whether or not the communicant is in the state of grace.Is this correct?