When investigating the validity of a baptism performed by a non-Catholic, how would the Church determine whether or not the intent was correct? Assume matter and form were correct, and now the only thing left to determine if intent was correct. I understand that often in the past, converts from protestantism were conditionally baptized because it was difficult to determine intent. In this instance, the person administering the intent is available for questioning.
Keep in mind that:
-Anyone CAN validly baptize, so long as matter, form and intent are correct.
-The personal faith of the minister does not effect at all whether or not the sacrament is valid
-Neither is it required that the person understand the effect of the sacrament, nor that they believe it to occur.
Quoting from McHugh and Callan:
"objectively, there must be an intention of doing what the Church
does (i.e., of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, for the
minister acts in the name and authority of Christ). Hence a mock
sacrament--or even, more probably, a purely external performance with
no purpose to enact a sacred rite--does not suffice. But, on the other
hand, an unbeliever can administer validly if he really intends to do
what Christians do or what Christ commanded to be done."
Would you ask the minister "Did you perform the baptism with the intent of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, in order to do what Christ has commanded done?" This seems like the best way to ask the question. If the minister answers in the affirmative, would the Church accept this to satisfy any doubts as to intention?
Please especially cite sources if you have them.