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Author Topic: Baptism and Intent  (Read 853 times)

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Änσnymσus

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Baptism and Intent
« on: December 04, 2013, 05:06:43 PM »
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  • When investigating the validity of a baptism performed by a non-Catholic, how would the Church determine whether or not the intent was correct?  Assume matter and form were correct, and now the only thing left to determine if intent was correct.  I understand that often in the past, converts from protestantism were conditionally baptized because it was difficult to determine intent.  In this instance, the person administering the intent is available for questioning.  

    Keep in mind that:

    -Anyone CAN validly baptize, so long as matter, form and intent are correct.
    -The personal faith of the minister does not effect at all whether or not the sacrament is valid
    -Neither is it required that the person understand the effect of the sacrament, nor that they believe it to occur.

    Quoting from McHugh and Callan:

    "objectively, there must be an intention of doing what the Church
    does (i.e., of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, for the
    minister acts in the name and authority of Christ).
    Hence a mock
    sacrament--or even, more probably, a purely external performance with
    no purpose to enact a sacred rite--does not suffice. But, on the other
    hand, an unbeliever can administer validly if he really intends to do
    what Christians do or what Christ commanded to be done."


    Would you ask the minister "Did you perform the baptism with the intent of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, in order to do what Christ has commanded done?"  This seems like the best way to ask the question.  If the minister answers in the affirmative, would the Church accept this to satisfy any doubts as to intention?

    Please especially cite sources if you have them.


    Offline holysoulsacademy

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #1 on: December 04, 2013, 09:21:34 PM »
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  • From what I understand about the sacraments, the reason why the form and matter in the old rite is observed religiously was because this was a way to ensure intent.  I am of the understanding that Holy Mother Church supplies what is lacking out of charity, especially since the faithful come in faith.

    Here is my question, a long time ago, before I truly understood much about my faith, my brother got together with a professed witch/new age/tree hugger etc. girl.  She got pregnant and they had a baby boy.  This girl hated everything catholic, even though she was raised as one.  One day they left my nephew with me to babysit and i took this opportunity to baptize the child - I figured my brother wouldn't mind since he was pretty "open" to anything, and also to protect the child from his mother.
    Was this bad? Should I confess this as a sin? If this was the wrong thing to do how do I correct it?


    Offline Mithrandylan

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #2 on: December 04, 2013, 09:35:06 PM »
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  • Quote from: holysoulsacademy
    From what I understand about the sacraments, the reason why the form and matter in the old rite is observed religiously was because this was a way to ensure intent.  I am of the understanding that Holy Mother Church supplies what is lacking out of charity, especially since the faithful come in faith.

    Here is my question, a long time ago, before I truly understood much about my faith, my brother got together with a professed witch/new age/tree hugger etc. girl.  She got pregnant and they had a baby boy.  This girl hated everything catholic, even though she was raised as one.  One day they left my nephew with me to babysit and i took this opportunity to baptize the child - I figured my brother wouldn't mind since he was pretty "open" to anything, and also to protect the child from his mother.
    Was this bad? Should I confess this as a sin? If this was the wrong thing to do how do I correct it?


    I think this is true, but I think that the axiom of assuming intent based on matter and form depends on it being a Catholic who is supplying the matter and form.  Or, to put it another way:

    If a Catholic minister is using the Catholic form and the Catholic matter, we can assume he has the proper intent.

    That makes sense.

    Juxtapose it with:

    A non-Catholic minister using a Catholic form and Catholic matter.  Can we assume the intent?  I don't know, but that seems to throw a wrench in it.  

    On the other hand, the Church regards the Orthodox as having valid sacraments.  So perhaps we can assume intent based on matter and form alone?  The Orthodox are certainly not Catholic.

    As to the baptism you performed on your nephew, I do not think we are supposed to baptize a child against the wishes of a parent.  I do not know what the rule is when the parent is ambivalent.  You should ask a priest.
    "Be kind; do not seek the malicious satisfaction of having discovered an additional enemy to the Church... And, above all, be scrupulously truthful. To all, friends and foes alike, give that serious attention which does not misrepresent any opinion, does not distort any statement, does not mutilate any quotation. We need not fear to serve the cause of Christ less efficiently by putting on His spirit". (Vermeersch, 1913).

    Änσnymσus

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #3 on: December 04, 2013, 10:48:10 PM »
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  • Quote from: Guest
    When investigating the validity of a baptism performed by a non-Catholic, how would the Church determine whether or not the intent was correct?  Assume matter and form were correct, and now the only thing left to determine if intent was correct.  I understand that often in the past, converts from protestantism were conditionally baptized because it was difficult to determine intent.  In this instance, the person administering the intent is available for questioning.  

    Keep in mind that:

    -Anyone CAN validly baptize, so long as matter, form and intent are correct.
    -The personal faith of the minister does not effect at all whether or not the sacrament is valid
    -Neither is it required that the person understand the effect of the sacrament, nor that they believe it to occur.

    Quoting from McHugh and Callan:

    "objectively, there must be an intention of doing what the Church
    does (i.e., of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, for the
    minister acts in the name and authority of Christ).
    Hence a mock
    sacrament--or even, more probably, a purely external performance with
    no purpose to enact a sacred rite--does not suffice. But, on the other
    hand, an unbeliever can administer validly if he really intends to do
    what Christians do or what Christ commanded to be done."


    Would you ask the minister "Did you perform the baptism with the intent of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, in order to do what Christ has commanded done?"  This seems like the best way to ask the question.  If the minister answers in the affirmative, would the Church accept this to satisfy any doubts as to intention?

    Please especially cite sources if you have them.

    I think this is why there is ecuмenical dialogue. This is why the baptismal certificate from a Baptist church is valid and the baptismal certificate from the Jehovahs Witnesses and the Mormons are not. I think one of the questions is "What do you understand Bapism to be?" or "How do you people understand Baptism?"

    Änσnymσus

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #4 on: December 04, 2013, 11:21:13 PM »
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  • Quote from: Guest
    Quote from: Guest
    When investigating the validity of a baptism performed by a non-Catholic, how would the Church determine whether or not the intent was correct?  Assume matter and form were correct, and now the only thing left to determine if intent was correct.  I understand that often in the past, converts from protestantism were conditionally baptized because it was difficult to determine intent.  In this instance, the person administering the intent is available for questioning.  

    Keep in mind that:

    -Anyone CAN validly baptize, so long as matter, form and intent are correct.
    -The personal faith of the minister does not effect at all whether or not the sacrament is valid
    -Neither is it required that the person understand the effect of the sacrament, nor that they believe it to occur.

    Quoting from McHugh and Callan:

    "objectively, there must be an intention of doing what the Church
    does (i.e., of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, for the
    minister acts in the name and authority of Christ).
    Hence a mock
    sacrament--or even, more probably, a purely external performance with
    no purpose to enact a sacred rite--does not suffice. But, on the other
    hand, an unbeliever can administer validly if he really intends to do
    what Christians do or what Christ commanded to be done."


    Would you ask the minister "Did you perform the baptism with the intent of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, in order to do what Christ has commanded done?"  This seems like the best way to ask the question.  If the minister answers in the affirmative, would the Church accept this to satisfy any doubts as to intention?

    Please especially cite sources if you have them.

    I think this is why there is ecuмenical dialogue. This is why the baptismal certificate from a Baptist church is valid and the baptismal certificate from the Jehovahs Witnesses and the Mormons are not. I think one of the questions is "What do you understand Bapism to be?" or "How do you people understand Baptism?"


    No, Poche, that's not it.

    Ultimately, their understanding of baptism is irrelevant.  Although it can contribute to them having the correct intent, the Church teaches that even heretics and apostates can baptize validly.  


    Offline Stubborn

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #5 on: December 05, 2013, 05:35:39 AM »
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  • Seems obvious that infidels, Jєωs, and all non-Catholics will not have the proper intention - they most likely will not even believe in it even if they know what it is -  and would only baptize someone by request.

    Trent's Catechism teaches that as long as the act (pouring/sprinkling the water while saying the correct words) is performed properly, no matter who the minister is, the baptism is valid.



    Ministers In Case Of Necessity

    Those who may administer Baptism in case of necessity, but without its solemn ceremonies, hold the last place; and in this class are included all, even the laity, men and women, to whatever sect they may belong. This office extends in case of necessity, even to Jєωs, infidels and heretics, provided, however, they intend to do what the Catholic Church does in that act of her ministry. These things were established by many decrees of the ancient Fathers and Councils; and the holy Council of Trent denounces anathema against those who dare to say, that Baptism, even when administered by heretics, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, with the intention of doing what the Church does, is not true Baptism.

    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse

    Änσnymσus

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    Baptism and Intent
    « Reply #6 on: December 05, 2013, 05:49:13 AM »
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  • Quote from: Guest
    Quote from: Guest
    Quote from: Guest
    When investigating the validity of a baptism performed by a non-Catholic, how would the Church determine whether or not the intent was correct?  Assume matter and form were correct, and now the only thing left to determine if intent was correct.  I understand that often in the past, converts from protestantism were conditionally baptized because it was difficult to determine intent.  In this instance, the person administering the intent is available for questioning.  

    Keep in mind that:

    -Anyone CAN validly baptize, so long as matter, form and intent are correct.
    -The personal faith of the minister does not effect at all whether or not the sacrament is valid
    -Neither is it required that the person understand the effect of the sacrament, nor that they believe it to occur.

    Quoting from McHugh and Callan:

    "objectively, there must be an intention of doing what the Church
    does (i.e., of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, for the
    minister acts in the name and authority of Christ).
    Hence a mock
    sacrament--or even, more probably, a purely external performance with
    no purpose to enact a sacred rite--does not suffice. But, on the other
    hand, an unbeliever can administer validly if he really intends to do
    what Christians do or what Christ commanded to be done."


    Would you ask the minister "Did you perform the baptism with the intent of performing a sacred rite instituted by Christ, in order to do what Christ has commanded done?"  This seems like the best way to ask the question.  If the minister answers in the affirmative, would the Church accept this to satisfy any doubts as to intention?

    Please especially cite sources if you have them.

    I think this is why there is ecuмenical dialogue. This is why the baptismal certificate from a Baptist church is valid and the baptismal certificate from the Jehovahs Witnesses and the Mormons are not. I think one of the questions is "What do you understand Bapism to be?" or "How do you people understand Baptism?"


    No, Poche, that's not it.

    Ultimately, their understanding of baptism is irrelevant.  Although it can contribute to them having the correct intent, the Church teaches that even heretics and apostates can baptize validly.  

    Yes but the bapism as it is performed at a Mormon church or a Jehovah Witness Kingdom Hall is not valid. They officially do not have the same intent that the Catholic Church has. The Baptist and teh Methodists have the same intent as the Catholic Church requires and their baptism is valid.