Dylan
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I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. I understand there are a number of differing eschatological views regarding this topic (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist, etc.). Matthew 24:4-34 seems to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (particularly Matt. 24:34) while 24:35-25:46 appears to refer to His future return and final Judgment of the world, however there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ's second coming and the final Judgment (for example Matt. 24:9-14 and Matt. 24:21-31) but, I am unsure of that interpretation.
What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?
Many skeptics/atheists/non-Christians will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His return/second coming to occur in the 1st century based on His words in Matthew 24:34 - "Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place." Could anyone explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or provide some resources that do so?
Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.
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| Posted Jun 29, 2010, 8:20 am |
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Raoul76
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| Quote: | | I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. |
I think everyone does. My first impulse was to write that Christ was being deliberately vague because He didn't want the disciples to know too much. Then I thought this would be like accusing Him of lying. But the Douay-Rheims says about as much:
Gloss on Matthew 24:3 --
| Quote: | | "Our Master knowing that it was not profitable or seemly for them to know these secrets, gave them by way of prophecy, warning of diverse miseries, signs and tokens, that should fall, some nearer off, and some nearer the latter day: by which the faithful might always prepare themselves; but never be certain of the hour, month, day, nor year, when it should fall. ( Aug Ep. 80 )" |
I guess that means it's from Epistle 80 of Augustine? So Augustine is saying that the Lord spoke generally and actually intermingled signs that would happen in the Apostles' lifetime, perhaps, with other signs that betoken the end. This is to say that the prophecy is genuine prophecy about the end but worded in such a way that, vaguely, it fits other times.
I think some parts are specific and some are general. But like with certain portions of the Apocalypse I think that the Olivet Discourse will not really make sense except to those for whom it was ultimately intended, those that live during the time of Antichrist at the very end. It is amazing how Apocalypse 18 has been fully revealed by our time, when it must have been incomprehensible before -- or at least in my mind I think it has been revealed to me. It will probably be the same with the Olivet Discourse. It's a sort of "time capsule" speech.
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Please ignore my old posts against NFP and implicit faith. Both are true teachings of the Church!
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| Posted Jun 30, 2010, 1:04 am |
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Cristian
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| Dylan said: | I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. I understand there are a number of differing eschatological views regarding this topic (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist, etc.). Matthew 24:4-34 seems to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (particularly Matt. 24:34) while 24:35-25:46 appears to refer to His future return and final Judgment of the world, however there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ's second coming and the final Judgment (for example Matt. 24:9-14 and Matt. 24:21-31) but, I am unsure of that interpretation.
What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?
Many skeptics/atheists/non-Christians will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His return/second coming to occur in the 1st century based on His words in Matthew 24:34 - "Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place." Could anyone explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or provide some resources that do so?
Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks. |
Hi!, well just to begin with this very interesting issue, iŽll quote what the commentary of Mons. Straubinger says (this is perhaps the best Sapnish version).
On verse 34 he says: "According to St. Jerome, HeŽd mean the whole mankind, according to others, the Jewish people, or just the contemporaries of Our Lord whoŽd see fullfilled this prophesy in the destruction of the holy city. Fillion, having in mind the divine Prophet refers parallely both to the destruction of Jerusalem and to the times of His second comming, applies these words firstly to those men who were going to be the withnessses of the ruin of Jerusalem and of the Temple, and secondly to that generation "who will be present in the last historical events of the world", that is to that generation who will see the signs just anounced here (Lc. 21,28). Lastly, according to other solid opinion, which does not exclude the precedent, "this generation" is that of the pharisees, escribs and doctors to whom the Lord named with those same words in His great discourse of the previous chapter (23;36).
I think it is important to have in mind that the destruction of Jerusalem is what is called the type (figure) of the end of the world (anti-type). Our Lord seemed to have refered to both in the whole chapter.
I donŽt know. Just some texts waiting for furhter comments!
Cristian
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"Il n`y a qu`une tristesse, c`est de n`etre pas des Saints"
Leon Bloy
"Lacrimarum donum signum est praedestinationis"
Leon Bloy
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| Posted Jun 30, 2010, 1:28 am |
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