Ladislaus

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Ah, but the formal-material distinction is different than the Eastern Orthodox problem--as per the very quote you cited.
Bishops receive jurisdiction THROUGH the Pope and not directly from Our Lord.
Consequently, per the formal-material thesis, a material pope could still serve as a conduit through which jurisdiction could flow. According to the same thesis, any valid non-heretic bishop appointed by the material pope would in fact have formal ordinary jurisdiction.
It's one of the interesting conclusions that flows from this thesis.
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......................... Banned for criticizing the forum and moderator.
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| Posted Jun 22, 2010, 2:38 am |
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Caminus


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| Ladislaus said: | Ah, but the formal-material distinction is different than the Eastern Orthodox problem--as per the very quote you cited.
Bishops receive jurisdiction THROUGH the Pope and not directly from Our Lord.
Consequently, per the formal-material thesis, a material pope could still serve as a conduit through which jurisdiction could flow. According to the same thesis, any valid non-heretic bishop appointed by the material pope would in fact have formal ordinary jurisdiction.
It's one of the interesting conclusions that flows from this thesis.
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But according to universal sedevacantism, there aren't even any bishops left with ordinary jurisdiction. And even supposing this is the case, would they not find themselves in exactly the same position as that of the SSPX which they so vociferously condemn?
Here's a good article.
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| Posted Jun 22, 2010, 2:47 am |
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Cristian


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| Caminus said: | "There is another important item on which the Mystici Corporis Christi issues a doctrinal decision. Prior to the issuance of this encyclical Catholic theologians had debated as to whether the residential bishops of the Catholic Church derived their power of jurisdiction immediately from Our Lord or from Him through the Roman Pontiff. In this document, Pope Pius XII took occasion to speak of the Bishops' power of jurisdiction and he described it as something "which they receive directly (immediate) from the same Supreme Pontiff."9 In the edition of his Institutiones Iuris Publici Ecclesiastici which came out after the issuance of the Mystici Corporis Christi, Cardinal Ottaviani took occasion to state that this teaching, which had hitherto been considered up until this time as more probable, and even as common doctrine, must now be accepted as entirely certain by reason of the words of the Sovereign Pontiff Pius XII."
I ask, how does the SV square his opinion with this doctrine? |
What´s the matter with this? I think actually these words are agianst Vatican II:
Lumen Gentium N 21: "But Episcopal consecration, together with the office of sanctifying, also confers the office of teaching and of governing, which, however, of its very nature, can be exercised only in hierarchical communion with the head and the members of the college.
In other words, according to Vat. II, the person receives the jurisdiction along with the consecration, which is planly wrong!.
Vale!
Cristian Jacobo
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......................... "Il n`y a qu`une tristesse, c`est de n`etre pas des Saints"
Leon Bloy
"Lacrimarum donum signum est praedestinationis"
Leon Bloy
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| Posted Jun 22, 2010, 4:03 am |
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